# Should one derive risk difference from the odds ratio?

**URL:** <https://discourse.datamethods.org/t/should-one-derive-risk-difference-from-the-odds-ratio/4403>\
**Category:** bayes\
**Tags:** absolute-risk\
**Created:** [May 13, 2021, 11:49pm UTC](https://discourse.datamethods.org/t/should-one-derive-risk-difference-from-the-odds-ratio/4403 "2021-05-13T23:49:41Z")\
**Posts on this page:** 1\
**Showing post:** 630

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**Author:** ![AndersHuitfeldt](https://discourse.datamethods.org/user_avatar/discourse.datamethods.org/andershuitfeldt/32/113_2.png) [@AndersHuitfeldt](https://discourse.datamethods.org/u/AndersHuitfeldt)\
**Post date:** [February 26, 2025, 9:55am UTC](https://discourse.datamethods.org/t/should-one-derive-risk-difference-from-the-odds-ratio/4403/630 "2025-02-26T09:55:48Z")

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I urge all readers of this thread to read the excellent new preprint from philosopher of science Veli-Pekka Parkkinen, [“Choice of effect measure, extrapolation, and  
decision-making in patient care and in public health”](https://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/24785/1/efmes.pdf), which makes the points I have tried to make in this thread with much more clarity than I was able to.

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