Absolute risk from a Cox-regression model

I am currently working on a survival-analysis project. My clinical supervisor asked me to compute “absolute risks at year 2”. How can I do this? I thought that Hazard ratios are the way to go to describe a Cox-model, but he keeps asking for an “absloute risk” in categories.

As an idea although it is a totally different field, he showed me the Table3 of this paper:
https://doi.org/10.1093/eurheartj/ehae557
where absolute risks are defined for different subgroups.
I do not really understand, how these are computed. As well as I dont found informations how they computed the Hazard ratios for these “subgroups”. Did the splitted the data and recomputed the model? Or do they just computed contrasts with mean/median of the subgroup value?

Essentially, you use the Cox model to calculate estimated survival at a certain time threshold (in this case year 2). The survest function of the rms package can do this.

Then, “absolute risk at year 2” is just 1 - estimated survival at year 2.

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Thanks, that sounds good. The later the timepoint the higher the absolute risk, but yeah.

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Yes and these are estimates of cumulative incidence of an outcome. See this and this.

Can survest be used on the output from fit.mult.impute and get correct estimate acounting for missing values from aregImpute?
Asks Fredrik L

When the model is parametric, yes. For a semiparametric model where different bootstrap samples have different distinct failure times, I’m uncertain.

The model I have in mind is a cph and time of death and censoring have no missing data. Missing data are only among the independent variables. If so, is survest correct applied after fit.mult.impute and aregImpute?

If you don’t get an error message it’s probably correct. I would need to check the code in detail to be sure. Even though Y is complete in your case, certain bootstrap samples will exclude some distinct failure times, creating a problem. Ultimately we need to use full Bayesian modeling which does not use Y to impute X.