As you know, there are different studies on the analysis of the clinical relevance of small and large LDL particles.
Although the mechanistic evidence points strongly to sdLDL, the evidence on the risk derived from these is mixed or outright negative, and shows equal risk between both fractions.
Krauss points out the methodological problems of considering both in the same model.
What would be for you as experts the most correct way to visualize how much risk each of the fractions contributes, knowing that there are two types of phenotype as shown by Krauss?
Thank you in advance