I used the function to test a variable (with two categories). The statistics column states that it is F1 with df (1,number of observations-2). I initially thought that it was a mistake. Then the footnote say that the test is Wilcox Test. I know that it is a Chi-Square based test and it sound right that one of the degree of freedom is 1. I do not know how to convince others and do the conversion.
Many thanks for your suggestions.
Best wishes
Sandro
The F distribution is a little more accurate that the \chi^2 distribution for Wilcoxon and Spearman tests. That’s why I used F there.
Dear Professor Harrell
Thank you very much for your help.
I know that what you have done is supreme. However, for many medical researchers, it is hard to convince them. Any possibly I can cusotmise the conTest function. If I know this, it will be helpful for future work too. I followed the instruction of the vignette. I go no success. I do not believe that it is something difficult. You make everything very user-friendly.
Thank you very much for you advice.
Best regards
Sandro
You can specify your own test function to summaryM but I don’t understand why you would use a less accurate \chi^2 p-value approximation. I’ve never had to convince any colleagues of this.
Dear Professor Harrell
Thank you very much for your advice.
I like precision. Unfortunately, people are inertia. They get used to doing thing in certain ways and they do not like to adapt to alternative idea. They are used to see W statistics…
Best wishes
Sandro