RMS General Regression

I am curious about the differences between assuming a negative binomial distribution vs a truncated normal distribution, for my outcome variable(y) . Here’s the context:

An assessment test is administered , aiming to evaluate participants’ restlessness. The responses to these questions are aggregated, resulting in a continuous total score ranging from 0 to 150. Subsequently, this total score is transformed into a population-level t-score, with a presumed mean of 50 and standard deviation of 10. This t-score, is my outcome (y),

The distribution of this t-score, assumed to follow a normal distribution, is skewed, ranging from 27 to 100. A considerable number of participants exhibit lower scores, with fewer participants achieving higher scores. Lower scores are good, this means the participants are not restless.

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My question is what are the trade offs when I assume my outcome follows a truncated normal distribution versus a negative binomial distribution. This is a repeated measure data. There are 1000 participants and I have repeated observations (2 or 3) for 400 and only single measure for 600 participants. Your advice is greatly appreciated. Thanks in advance.