I’m conducting a meta analysis and i’m interested in assessing the association between two covariates in a clinical scenario.

For example i’m interesting in assessing the prevalence of obesity in the general population and the association between obesity and being male.

I perform a meta regression and i see that the percentage of males included in the study Is a significant covariate with 70% of the heterogeneity explained.

When I meta analyze the odds ratio between being male and being obese i don’t have a statistically significant result.

Does It mean that the results in the meta regression are spurious?

I have a bit of uncertainty in explaining this result.

Thank you!