Following a brief email exchange with Frank, he asked me to post my questions here. I’ve made some light edits. Sorry for the wall of text in advance
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If you want to skip to the questions, go to the section “Questions”.
Context
I have entered the world of science through (retrospective) clinical research in Radiology/Oncology, exposed mainly to non-formally stats-trained clinicians/biologists/scientists. By now I have transitioned to (Clinical) Virology, not least to have time to foster my statistical interests and to be able to access prospective and experimental research more easily.
For quite some years I have been in what I like to provocatively call an “epistemological crisis” about many of the retrospective studies to which I had initially been exposed.
You know the drill: We have disease/outcome Y, an interesting/new measurement x_1 and adjust for some other variables x_2, x_3, .... Then we claim association between x_1 and Y. Variations on the theme are:
- looking at multiple similar outcomes Y_a, Y_b, Y_c, ... to show some “robustness of association”.
- looking at multiple different outcomes (and then maybe only report those that are interesting, i.e. statistically significant for x_1 after varying covariate adjustments, …).
- performing various (non-linear) transformations on x_1, including combination with other x.
- Maybe even some prospective-ness or secondary/subgroup RCT analysis thrown in.
- More recently (somewhat actually suprising to me) even so called experimental work is in fact often not experimental. Rather anything (wet) lab related gets claimed as experimental.
This feels connected to what Richard McElreath calls “causal salad”.
I have been highly conflicted with the value of these studies. In the beginning I went along assuming a logical resolution would follow once I learn enough. However, I have the impression from the online (applied) stats community that these studies are almost always useless and in the bigger picture harmful.
The applied researchers justify them as a “first step”, “you have to start somewhere”, and an “indirect glimpse” at “the actual question”.
Yet, the applied researchers seem not to be able to characterize (implicit) assumptions for their studies to be useful, like how “the actual question” and the “indirect glimpse” of a study in question logically relate to one another such that one couldn’t plausibly make the case for “well the direction of an effect in question could also be the other way around” such that the entire argument of a given study reduces to “We (authors) think the relationship in question is X”.
On top, as you know, it is often claimed that the goal of these studies is explicitly “association” and nothing else.
I generally agree with the impression that association is the purely descriptive (pun not intended) term that evolved into the “lowest common denominator” stemming from a (well-intended suspicion) against claims of causal inference in observational studies.
In my experience, when I ask applied researchers about what the larger goal with these association studies is, and whether it’s descriptive, predictive, or causal/aetiological I get in my opinion, confused answers along the lines of “it’s association - which is an end in itself”.
Having been confused about this state myself: rationally, I lean towards this research being generally useless or even harmful; still, I am inclined to assume that my understanding might be still incomplete.
My hunch is that the majority of the applied (clinical) research community does not know because many are essentially performing what Feynman called “cargo cult science”. I assume mostly without malicious intent. At the same time, my (statistical) knowledge is a lot based on intuition so that I often fail to put critiques forward which is simple enough that it can be easily understood while at the same time mathematically sharp enough that it cannot be dismissed by (A) hand waving (B) in my opinion, lip service to the typical stuff one finds in limitation sections, or (C) a claim to the critique being too technical. And sometimes I even encounter people with (some) formal stats training (e.g. Epidemiology, Bioinformaticians, …) who seem to be fine with this general kind of scientific approach.
Questions
The (pointed) questions I want to ask your opinion(s) on are:
- Can there be something like an “association study” that does not have a descriptive, predictive, or causal intent? Can there be any study at all that does not have one of the three goals?
- Are most of said studies at best descriptive? With some misguided causal-wording under the hood?
- If so, can they still be useful even if unknowingly descriptive? (think probably misguided adjustment set for causality (i.e. using “more adjustments are better adjustments and dividing number of observations by e.g. 10 or 30 to conclude the maximum number of covariables…), or, in a prediction setting (borderline) useless tools to assess added predictive value in a seemingly muddled prediction setting”)
- How and where (!) do you walk the fine line between the two extremes:
- “Every statistical output is at heart association. Wrong things will be weeded out as time goes to infinity if we trust the scientific process. So just go with the flow and on average it will be fine.”
- Any study that fails to clearly articulate its objective, is likely useless or harmful and should therefore not be published.
Thank you all in advance! ![]()